Due Monday, November 28th at midnight. How would you respond to the suggestion that there are no absolute moral standards that apply to everyone?
Aw, this is an easy one, but can really lead to a lot of arguments if you’re not careful. But really, let’s break it down: What does the statement, “There are no moral absolutes that apply to everyone,” have in common with the statement, “There are moral absolutes that apply to everyone?” All that’s missing is a negative, but the statement remains the same—they’re both still moral absolute statements, declaring something to be true or untrue. So, really, saying that there are no moral standards that apply to everyone contradicts itself and a self-contradicting statement, by the rules of logic, can’t be treated as valid because there isn’t any truth in it.
Then there’s the legal aspect of it: why do we have courts and laws and such if there weren’t moral rules that we need to keep them to? There are things every culture agrees is wrong, be it murder or child torture or any number of grotesque things. Ours is no different, and we enforce it with the legal system we have set in place, to make us a better society by following some absolute moral rules. The basic existence of the words “right” and “wrong” mean that there are rules—to do something “good” means there is a counter, or a “bad” that can be done by reversing the “good” option. So we have moral rules just in basic societal theory and in our vocabulary.
But hey, if you have any other questions, feel free to hand me one of them. I like these kind. xD
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